Đề thi Olympic môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 6 - Năm học 2014-2015 - Trường THCS Cự Khê (Có đáp án)

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Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 05 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 05 - Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.

Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1: Số phách

- Bằng số:…………….. ………………………………………... (Do Chủ tịch hội đồng chấm thi ghi) - Bằng chữ:…………… Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 2: ………………………... ………………………………………... …………………..

I. LISTENING : (10 0,2=2,0 pts) a. Listen to the talk and fill in the gaps:

1. The city of Stockholm covers…………………islands. 2. It has…………………years of history. 3. There are about…………………people living in the Old Town today. 4. Nobel prizewinners receive………………… their awards on………………… 5. The award consists of a Nobel diploma, a medal and…………Swedish crowns. b. Listen again then write T (True) or F (False).

6. The oldest part of Stockholm is the Old Town. 7. The Royal Palace is very large. 8. We can visit the Nobel museum here. 9. The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded in Stockholm. 10. The Nobel Prizes are awarded every year.

II. PHONETICS: (10 0,2=2,0 pts) a. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C, or D. (5 0,2=1,0 pt)

11. A. peace B. east C. bean D. pear 12. A. sure B. sugar C. sing D. mission 13. A. chocolate B. classmate C. lemonade D. participate 14. A. parks B. stamps C. cats D. cars 15. A. bank B. plane C. travel D. math

b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others (5 0,2=1,0 pt)

16. A. toothpaste B. sandwich C. cartoon D. chocolate 17. A. aerobics B. activity C. badminton D. basketball 18. A. police B. gymnast C. teacher D. farmer 19. A. different B. dangerous C. difficult D. delicious 20 A. visit B. unload C. receive D. correct

III. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: (30 0,2=6,0 pts)

PHÒNG GD&ĐT THANH OAI

TRƯỜNG THCS CỰ KHÊ ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 6

NĂM HỌC 2014 - 2015 Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

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DeThi.edu.vn

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a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0,2=2,0 pts)

21. How ......................... kilos of beef does she want?

A. many B. much C. any D. about 22. I don’t like vegetables but my sister .........................

A. do B. likes C. does D. would like 23. “Would you like some noodles, Lan?” - “No, .........................I’m full. Thanks.”

A. I wouldn’t B. I don’t C. I’m not D. I don’t like 24. “Is that your father?” - “Yes, .........................”

A. it’s B. he is C. that is D. it is 25. “How ......................... oranges would you like” - “A dozen, please. And ......................... tea.”

A. much, some B. many, any C. much, any D. many, some 26. “Does Mary like .........................?” - “Yes. She jogs every morning.”

A. jog B. to jog C. jogging D.jogs 27. “I’d like some meat, please.” - “How much .........................?”

A. do you like B. do you want C. ‘d you like D. you need 28. Which movie theater.........................?

A. do you want to go to B. do you want to go C. you want to go D. do you want to go it 29. He has a garage. That garage is .........................

A. him B. of him C. his D. of his 30. She is going to .................. the citadel.

A. visits B. visit C. to visit D. visiting

b. Fill in the blanks with the correct prepositions. (5 0,2=1,0 pt)

31. It is hot ......................... the summer. 32. “How do you go to school?” - “ ......................... bike.” 33. She has breakfast ......................... bread and milk. 34. The beef is ......................... the table, .(35)..................... the chicken and the vegetables. 35. What's .......................... breakfast? - Bread and milk.

c. Write the correct form of the words given in capital letters: (10 0,2=2,0 pts)

36. You must be ......................... when you cross the road. (CARE)

37. My aunt has two ......................... , a boy and a girl. (CHILD)

38. September is the ......................... month of the year. (NINE)

39. My father goes .........................every morning. …